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Daryl
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 9:04 am 
If i understand all this net neutrality right, the goal is to prevent someone from creating traffic problems and then charging a toll for a fast lane to avoid the traffic problem? Sounds like a good idea, that would be awful if someone actually did that.

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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 9:20 am 
MtnGoat wrote:
not a market
My take is that this is aimed preventing the broadband monopolies (sounds oxymoronic as a plural, but in local areas each IS a monopoly for something like 75% of US residents) from screwing consumers and providers thanks to the lack of competition for their service. If you value the ability of monopolists to take such advantage, yeah, this is really screwing up the market. W/o having studied this issue further, my knee-jerk reaction is to wish they'd had the political will to actually create competition e.g. via the European approach of forcing pipe owners to allow other provider to rent out the pipes in order to increase the chance of their being more than one provider in each market. But preventing abuse of monopoly tends to be more the US approach to dealing with dealing with monopolies.

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MtnGoat
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 9:48 am 
Oh yes I'm sure it has very nice intentions. Intentions are always what is sold, and the instant whatever it is is put in place, then the excuses begin. We know it's perfect, but we're trying. The reason for the lack of access is the zillion restrictions on installing new access, a problem created by 'regulators' in the first place. Cable and telecoms lobby to gain protectionism for their physical plant, and that restricts competition. Now the 'solution' is to add *another* layer of controls to address the problems inevitably created by the existing controls. Sheer stupidity. How you engender actual competition instead of the word lacking the value, is not by adding *new* problems, but by *removing* the controls causing it in the first place.

Diplomacy is the art of saying 'Nice doggie' until you can find a rock. - Will Rogers
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 10:04 am 
MtnGoat wrote:
The reason for the lack of access is the zillion restrictions on installing new access, a problem created by 'regulators' in the first place.
References?

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MtnGoat
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 10:09 am 
http://www.mackinac.org/10118 numerous layers of regulation on installing new lines which have had the impact of retarding telecom competition with cable providers, for example. I can't believe anyone would not understand how the lack of actual competition wouldn't be due to layers of govt, since that is the only means to legally inhibit competition the other issue here is the mindset of deciding someone else's property should be accessible to you simply based on your wants. When rates are too high, I dump the service and go without it. Want is not sufficient reason to use aggression against other people. On another note, all this does is remove individuals as the actual customer. Now, what companies must do first is satisfy the politicians/beaurocrats/central planners. This doesn't expand customer power, it shrinks it, and provably so because companies will not be permitted to offer customers what they want but which doesn't satisfy the planners. That's not more control, it's less.

Diplomacy is the art of saying 'Nice doggie' until you can find a rock. - Will Rogers
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joker
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 10:16 am 
MtnGoat wrote:
I can't believe anyone would not understand how the lack of actual competition wouldn't be due to layers of govt, since that is the only means to legally inhibit competition
Now now, you normally don't go for snarky jabs like that. Thanks for the link; will take a look later, but from what I've heard from economists who study the space the issues are more complex than any regulations on infrastructure. I live in a neighborhood where we'd happily let anyone pipe in another broadband service (to the 11 houses on our rural dirt lane), but now that Comcast did it when they were finding their cable-tunneling equipment to be idle, I guarantee that no other provider is going to do the same (unless we pay them full cost up front). I don't begrudge the other providers the right to not bring us their pipes, but it does leave us with a monopoly that appears to have nothing to do with your bette noir of regulation.

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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 10:19 am 
A monopoly is when competition is prevented by govt. Mere market predominance is not a monopoly. I never claimed the only reason for not having other providers was regulation. In your case, and mine I might add, the issue is the economics. It may not make fiscal sense to expend the capital to sparse areas to compete for 11 houses with an existing service. No one's rights are being violated in that case. Someone's 'wants' may however not be satisifed.

Diplomacy is the art of saying 'Nice doggie' until you can find a rock. - Will Rogers
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 11:09 am 
MtnGoat wrote:
A monopoly is when competition is prevented by govt. Mere market predominance is not a monopoly.
confused.gif ????? better check a dictionary MG. A gov't may grant a monopoly, e.g. Hudson's Bay Co. but the definition is broader.
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[muh-nop-uh-lee] noun, plural monopolies. 1. exclusive control of a commodity or service in a particular market, or a control that makes possible the manipulation of prices. Compare duopoly, oligopoly. 2. an exclusive privilege to carry on a business, traffic, or service, granted by a government. 3. the exclusive possession or control of something. 4. something that is the subject of such control, as a commodity or service. 5. a company or group that has such control. 6. the market condition that exists when there is only one seller. 7. (initial capital letter) a board game in which a player attempts to gain a monopoly of real estate by advancing around the board and purchasing property, acquiring capital by collecting rent from other players whose pieces land on that property.

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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 11:12 am 
Great. Then the question is, in which cases does a monopoly actually violate someone's rights, such that violating the rights of the seller becomes morally legitimate? So far, the basis for using the State against companies seems to be that the supporters want control over someone else's buisness or agreements,yet cannot present evidence that they have actually had their rights violated.

Diplomacy is the art of saying 'Nice doggie' until you can find a rock. - Will Rogers
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 11:26 am 
The FCC regs in this case simply lay out the rules for a level playing field. A friend of mine is a higher up in the telcom industry and says that overall the new rules are OK. He's in the telephone business and feels that they didn't get the best deal but can live with it. The new regs provide some clarity and stability rather than piecemeal oversight which has been going on for the last 20yrs. And surely better than this congress could do. Actually they prefer doing it this way rather than dysfunctional congressional meddling. Now we will see what the courts say. Some of these regs will get thrown out for sure.

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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 12:58 pm 
MtnGoat wrote:
Then the question is, in which cases does a monopoly actually violate someone's rights, such that violating the rights of the seller becomes morally legitimate?
Indeed. My lay understanding is that answering this question is the basis for any sort of regulation of monopolies in this country. I.e. "is there harm to consumers?"

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DIYSteve
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 1:36 pm 
Not quite. First, evidence of certain kinds of non-competitive conduct support a per se violation under the Sherman or Clayton Acts. An example of a per se violation of the Sherman Act is a conspiracy in restraint of trade. Second, a remedy for a non-per se violation of the Act is proper where there is proof of potential harm to consumers. Third, both Acts provide remedies where harm to a competing business is established.

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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 1:37 pm 
Approximate definition of a monopoly I was taught is the ability to set price, as opposed to price being set by simple market forces. Of course there was a list of assumptions. But the key was the ability to set price, independent of cost to produce product.

Keep Calm and Carry On? Heck No. Stay Excited and Get Outside!
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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 1:39 pm 
The legal definition of "monopoly" in American jurisprudence is complex and, in application, fact-specific. ETA:
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The purpose of the [Sherman] Act is not to protect businesses from the working of the market; it is to protect the public from the failure of the market. The law directs itself not against conduct which is competitive, even severely so, but against conduct which unfairly tends to destroy competition itself.
Spectrum Sports, Inc. v. McQuillan 506 U.S. 447 (1993)

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PostFri Mar 13, 2015 2:15 pm 
Of course a legal definition would be different than an economist's definition. Economists accept that society accepts, and even encourages some monopolies. Examples are patents awarded for drugs. The theory is that this will incentivize investors to take the risk on developing drugs, some or many of which will be failures. Water and sewer systems they call "natural monopolies".

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